Given that the majority consensus view on inerrancy only applies to the autographs and does not apply to any translations,
and given that we do not have any autographs and no originals exist,
and given that we only use modern translations,
and given that when we use the term Bible, it is in reference to modern translations that we can hold in our hands,
and given that we consider modern Bible translations to be authoritative,
Therefore, it is not necessary for the Bible to be inerrant while also being authoritative.
https://debatingchristianity.com/forum/viewtopic.php?p=985188#p985188