Can you show that the Septuagint was used by Jews?
“Greek scriptures were in wide use during the Second Temple period, because few people could read Hebrew at that time. The text of the Greek Old Testament is quoted more often than the original Hebrew Bible text in the Greek New Testament[10][11] (particularly the Pauline epistles)[12] by the Apostolic Fathers, and later by the Greek Church Fathers. ”
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Septuagint
“300 years before Christ was born, the Hebrew bible, which Christians consider the Old Testament, was translated into Koine Greek. The title of this translation was called the Septuagint. It is this translation that was used by the Paul, the Apostles, and the early church. ”
http://theorthodoxfaith.com/article/the … ly-church/
“Since Greek was the common language of the Roman Empire, the Septuagint was popular among Jews living under Roman rule. Many of the early Christians didn’t know Hebrew, so they naturally embraced this popular Greek translation as well.”
https://overviewbible.com/septuagint/
If you read Romans, it is clear what Paul is arguing – the Law is a requirement for Jews. It is not a requirement for Gentiles. It is a burden for Jews as it just gives them more to sin about. Gentiles are free of that. Becoming God’s people is through Righteousness, not the Law. The Law cannot save, only Jesus can save. All this is perfectly clear in Romans. Mind, in later letters, he seems to argue that Jesus can even make Jews free of the Law, but that’s something else. But the end point is that the Gospel arguments about good deeds counting more than ritual cleanliness and Sabbath observance is absolutely in line with Pauline preaching. Now, it also looks like Paul was in conflict with the Jews about converting Gentiles without regard to Jewish Law – not even the Noahide ones. Acts 21 21 shows that the writer (I am sure Luke writing a biographical novel based on Paul’s letters) was aware of this. I also think this was Paul in conflict with Jesus’ own followers, who were still observant Jews. If so it of course means that Jesus did not teach his own followers or anyone else to sideline Jewish Law. If so, it follows that none of the gospels (other than a basic story) is what Jesus taught but is what the Christian writers invented, using common text or just their own invented material. That’s my argument and I think there are clues that support it. It explains the contradictions, it explains the nonsense. It explains everything.
https://debatingchristianity.com/forum/viewtopic.php?p=1053355#p1053355